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Jun 28 at 10:04 vote accept User65535
Jun 27 at 20:35 comment added thelawnet there's a source here: citizensadvice.org.uk/law-and-courts/discrimination/…. It seems a reasonable interpretation to me.
Jun 27 at 7:40 comment added Riwen @thelawnet "This difference in ratio is likely to be sufficient to qualify as indirect discrimination." - has there ever been such a court ruling, or do you have any source for that claim?
Jun 26 at 18:45 comment added thelawnet Originally a civil partnership was introduced as a compromise: marriage is between a man and a woman, whereas a civil partnership was introduced to allow two people of the same sex. This was changed so that 1) people of the same sex were allowed to marry 2) people of the opposite sex wanted to have a c.p. rather than marriage, and felt the law was discrminatory and this is now possible 3) cps can be convert to marriages. Currently the ratio of s.s to o.s. c.p is 1:8, and for marriage 1:30. This difference in ratio is likely to be sufficient to qualify as indirect discrimination.
Jun 26 at 17:42 comment added Barmar Can you have a civil partnership between a man and a woman, or does that only exist as a marriage alternative for same-sex couples? If so, how is it sexual orientation discrimination if you treat them differently from a married man+woman?
Jun 26 at 11:38 history edited thelawnet CC BY-SA 4.0
added 58 characters in body
Jun 26 at 11:16 history answered thelawnet CC BY-SA 4.0