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bwDraco
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Many older books sold inprinted for the UK market (most notably The Great Gatsby) had text on the back cover resembling the following:

For copyright reasons this book is not for sale in the U.S.A.

Under Kirtsaeng v. John Wiley, I'm pretty sure this has no legal meaning in the US any more, but I have some questions:

  • What was the historical basis for this notice?
  • Is this notice indeed legally void in the United States under Kirtsaeng (assuming the book was lawfully acquired in the UK or its territories)? In other works, could I legally sell such a book in the US?

Many older books sold in the UK (most notably The Great Gatsby) had text on the back cover resembling the following:

For copyright reasons this book is not for sale in the U.S.A.

Under Kirtsaeng v. John Wiley, I'm pretty sure this has no legal meaning in the US any more, but I have some questions:

  • What was the historical basis for this notice?
  • Is this notice indeed legally void in the United States under Kirtsaeng (assuming the book was lawfully acquired in the UK or its territories)? In other works, could I legally sell such a book in the US?

Many older books printed for the UK market (most notably The Great Gatsby) had text on the back cover resembling the following:

For copyright reasons this book is not for sale in the U.S.A.

Under Kirtsaeng v. John Wiley, I'm pretty sure this has no legal meaning in the US any more, but I have some questions:

  • What was the historical basis for this notice?
  • Is this notice indeed legally void in the United States under Kirtsaeng (assuming the book was lawfully acquired in the UK or its territories)? In other works, could I legally sell such a book in the US?
Source Link
bwDraco
  • 770
  • 5
  • 21

Kirtsaeng and books from the UK marked "not for sale in the U.S.A."

Many older books sold in the UK (most notably The Great Gatsby) had text on the back cover resembling the following:

For copyright reasons this book is not for sale in the U.S.A.

Under Kirtsaeng v. John Wiley, I'm pretty sure this has no legal meaning in the US any more, but I have some questions:

  • What was the historical basis for this notice?
  • Is this notice indeed legally void in the United States under Kirtsaeng (assuming the book was lawfully acquired in the UK or its territories)? In other works, could I legally sell such a book in the US?