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Dec 28, 2018 at 16:10 comment added xuhdev If you meant explicitly stripping Supreme Court's jurisdiction, then it still does apply, and the Wikipedia page also briefly touched it.
Dec 28, 2018 at 16:04 comment added xuhdev If there is no court available to file the initial petition to, Supreme Court is certainly affected.
Dec 28, 2018 at 14:36 vote accept Christopher King
Dec 28, 2018 at 14:31 comment added Christopher King @xuhdev because jurisdiction stripping doesn't apply to the Supreme Court
Dec 28, 2018 at 8:10 comment added xuhdev Why is your scenario different from jurisdiction stripping? Seems to me, "It is illegal for the Supreme Court to try this particular law in court." is no difference from "the Supreme Court shall not try this particular law in court." If Supreme Court acts, then it violates the statute no matter which version Congress adopted.
Jan 11, 2018 at 4:11 comment added user662852 South Carolina did this. en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ordinance_of_Nullification
Jan 10, 2018 at 23:30 answer added ohwilleke timeline score: 3
Jan 10, 2018 at 23:23 comment added Christopher King @NateEldredge Interesting. The main difference between my scenario and Jurisdiction stripping is that Jurisdiction stripping is an expressly legal power of Congress, whereas in my question Congress is explicitly doing something illegal (and my question is who has the right to stop them).
Jan 10, 2018 at 23:20 comment added Nate Eldredge Relevant: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jurisdiction_stripping
Jan 10, 2018 at 23:13 history asked Christopher King CC BY-SA 3.0