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Jan 28, 2019 at 14:21 vote accept Oli
Jan 17, 2019 at 17:53 answer added Brian R timeline score: 2
Jan 17, 2019 at 17:51 comment added Iñaki Viggers It would be interesting to read the statute(s) to which you refer. My "educated guess" is that the relevant date is the end date, that is, when termination of employment becomes effective. Otherwise, an employer could give overly anticipated notices to maximize the amount of statutory redundancy pay he can elude.
Jan 17, 2019 at 17:30 review First posts
Jan 21, 2019 at 23:40
Jan 17, 2019 at 17:30 history asked Oli CC BY-SA 4.0