Timeline for Can the employer fully access employee data according to EU law?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Oct 1, 2019 at 11:44 | comment | added | Overmind | It does require consent in the case I specified: personal use of information systems. A company not allowing any personal use during breaks and such is an over-exaggerated measure. That is why the exception to AUP is desirable by most companies. | |
| Sep 27, 2019 at 15:17 | history | migrated | from security.stackexchange.com (revisions) | ||
| Sep 27, 2019 at 13:48 | comment | added | Esa Jokinen | GDPR doesn't require such wording. First, GDPR doesn't even require consent to handle PII data, but the consent is just the last option when there's no other legitimate reason to process the data. Also, as it's clearly told how the data will be processed and that there should not be personal use, the company is not responsible of any PII data that gets collected while using the system against the Acceptable Use Standard. | |
| Sep 27, 2019 at 12:52 | comment | added | Raimonds Liepiņš | Even before GDPR the standard employee contract already included that what you do on a company's property, including laptop can be audited by the company for security. | |
| Sep 27, 2019 at 12:46 | comment | added | MechMK1 | @Overmind I still think in order to downvote a question you should be required to either write a comment or to upvote an existing comment. | |
| Sep 27, 2019 at 12:38 | comment | added | Overmind | I wonder why clueless about GDPR people down-vote such an answer. | |
| Sep 27, 2019 at 12:08 | comment | added | Justin | Likely in the company's Acceptable Use Policy. | |
| Sep 27, 2019 at 11:59 | comment | added | MechMK1 | Such a statement could be on the employment contract. | |
| Sep 27, 2019 at 11:55 | history | answered | Overmind | CC BY-SA 4.0 |