Timeline for Which country's laws take precedence in a war?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 13, 2022 at 17:05 | comment | added | abukaj | Does it mean that execution of Poles for either possession of a file in a public place or sheltering Jews in German occupied Poland during WW2 would not be seen as war crime by IV GC? Moreover, would it mean that Polish resistance executing Poles following the German-issued law were actual criminals? | |
| Mar 30, 2022 at 23:40 | history | bounty ended | Allure | ||
| Jun 17, 2020 at 8:31 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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| Oct 1, 2019 at 2:00 | comment | added | A.fm. | @SJuan76 excellent answer. Thanks for citing to sources. | |
| Sep 30, 2019 at 11:52 | comment | added | Mark Johnson | @Allure stated simply: Just because Country A has occupied parts of Country B, that part does not become an integral part of the occupier. The basic laws still apply but can be overruled. Sample WW2: Germany occupied a part of France. French laws and sperate customs areas remained. Germany ordered the introduction of CET, replacing WET, for military and economic reasons. | |
| Sep 30, 2019 at 8:09 | vote | accept | Allure | ||
| Sep 30, 2019 at 8:02 | history | edited | SJuan76 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 228 characters in body
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| Sep 30, 2019 at 7:55 | history | answered | SJuan76 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |