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based off of the answer to this question: http://law.stackexchange.com/questions/4629/if-one-leaves-the-us-to-commit-an-act-illegal-in-the-us-but-legal-in-the-country/4631#4631If one leaves the US to commit an act illegal in the US but legal in the country they travel to are they guilty of a crime? My first bizarre loophole question has to do with situations when someone is a US citizen, but consider themselves to be citizens of a different country with different laws..

based off of the answer to this question: http://law.stackexchange.com/questions/4629/if-one-leaves-the-us-to-commit-an-act-illegal-in-the-us-but-legal-in-the-country/4631#4631 My first bizarre loophole question has to do with situations when someone is a US citizen, but consider themselves to be citizens of a different country with different laws..

based off of the answer to this question: If one leaves the US to commit an act illegal in the US but legal in the country they travel to are they guilty of a crime? My first bizarre loophole question has to do with situations when someone is a US citizen, but consider themselves to be citizens of a different country with different laws..

4 removed distinction between citizens and "technical" citizens; legal and "technically" legal. these are the same thing under the law.
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Can someone who does not consider himself a us cizte extriditedcitizen extradited and punished for a US felony crime due to a US citizenship?

3 removed distinction between citizens and "technical" citizens; legal and "technically" legal. these are the same thing under the law.
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Can someone who does not consider himself a us cizte extridited and punished for a US felony crime due to a technical US citizenship

based off of the answer to this question: http://law.stackexchange.com/questions/4629/if-one-leaves-the-us-to-commit-an-act-illegal-in-the-us-but-legal-in-the-country/4631#4631 My first bizarre loophole question has to do with situations when someone is technically a US citizen, but for all purposes consider themselves to be citizens of a different country with different laws..

However, Alice happened to have been born on a cruise while the cruise ship was sailing through US territorial waters, thus technically making her a US citizen. She has never done any of the things which can cause someone to officially lose their US citizenship.

I'm wondering what, of any of these scenarios, would technically be illegal due to the above law and could theoretically lead to either extrication, or to arrest when/if they ever visited the US at some later date (and if one is possible but not the later).

I realize that prosecutor discretion would usually result in no one choosing to prosecutor most if not all of the above cases, despite any technical legal legal right, but I'm asking rather they could face charges if a prosecutor did choose to move forward for some reason. I don't know why they would, maybe they are angry at Alice for some other not-technicaly-illegallegal act and this is their way of bending the laws to punish Alice in some way, maybe someone is putting pressure on Alice as some political maneuver to pressure her important father into something, maybe some prosecutor is just really gung-ho in prosecuting crimes for some reason whatever...

*Edit: Looking back at the law I linked I realized that the definition of illicit sexual encounter, when outside of US territories, is effectively defined as a commercial sexual act, which negates all my examples since no one was being payed. However, I'm not interested in the specific law so much as how any law making activities on foreign territory illegal would be applied to 'technical citizens'citizens, and only used this law because it was the only one I knew of to reliable reference. For now umm...just pretend that illicit sexual act part of the law was not limited only to commercial acts when answering this question? I think the heart of what I'm trying to understand wouldn't change if that law were slightly different and that's easier then my rewriting all of the above.

Can someone who does not consider himself a us cizte extridited and punished for a US felony crime due to a technical US citizenship

based off of the answer to this question: http://law.stackexchange.com/questions/4629/if-one-leaves-the-us-to-commit-an-act-illegal-in-the-us-but-legal-in-the-country/4631#4631 My first bizarre loophole question has to do with situations when someone is technically a US citizen, but for all purposes consider themselves to be citizens of a different country with different laws..

However, Alice happened to have been born on a cruise while the cruise ship was sailing through US territorial waters, thus technically making her a US citizen. She has never done any of the things which can cause someone to officially lose their US citizenship.

I'm wondering what, of any of these scenarios, would technically be illegal due to the above law and could theoretically lead to either extrication, or to arrest when/if they ever visited the US at some later date (and if one is possible but not the later).

I realize that prosecutor discretion would usually result in no one choosing to prosecutor most if not all of the above cases, despite any technical legal right, but I'm asking rather they could face charges if a prosecutor did choose to move forward for some reason. I don't know why they would, maybe they are angry at Alice for some other not-technicaly-illegal act and this is their way of bending the laws to punish Alice in some way, maybe someone is putting pressure on Alice as some political maneuver to pressure her important father into something, maybe some prosecutor is just really gung-ho in prosecuting crimes for some reason whatever...

*Edit: Looking back at the law I linked I realized that the definition of illicit sexual encounter, when outside of US territories, is effectively defined as a commercial sexual act, which negates all my examples since no one was being payed. However, I'm not interested in the specific law so much as how any law making activities on foreign territory illegal would be applied to 'technical citizens', and only used this law because it was the only one I knew of to reliable reference. For now umm...just pretend that illicit sexual act part of the law was not limited only to commercial acts when answering this question? I think the heart of what I'm trying to understand wouldn't change if that law were slightly different and that's easier then my rewriting all of the above.

Can someone who does not consider himself a us cizte extridited and punished for a US felony crime due to a US citizenship

based off of the answer to this question: http://law.stackexchange.com/questions/4629/if-one-leaves-the-us-to-commit-an-act-illegal-in-the-us-but-legal-in-the-country/4631#4631 My first bizarre loophole question has to do with situations when someone is a US citizen, but consider themselves to be citizens of a different country with different laws..

However, Alice happened to have been born on a cruise while the cruise ship was sailing through US territorial waters, thus making her a US citizen. She has never done any of the things which can cause someone to officially lose their US citizenship.

I'm wondering what, of any of these scenarios, would be illegal due to the above law and could theoretically lead to either extrication, or to arrest when/if they ever visited the US at some later date (and if one is possible but not the later).

I realize that prosecutor discretion would usually result in no one choosing to prosecutor most if not all of the above cases, despite any legal right, but I'm asking rather they could face charges if a prosecutor did choose to move forward for some reason. I don't know why they would, maybe they are angry at Alice for some other legal act and this is their way of bending the laws to punish Alice in some way, maybe someone is putting pressure on Alice as some political maneuver to pressure her important father into something, maybe some prosecutor is just really gung-ho in prosecuting crimes for some reason whatever...

*Edit: Looking back at the law I linked I realized that the definition of illicit sexual encounter, when outside of US territories, is effectively defined as a commercial sexual act, which negates all my examples since no one was being payed. However, I'm not interested in the specific law so much as how any law making activities on foreign territory illegal would be applied to citizens, and only used this law because it was the only one I knew of to reliable reference. For now umm...just pretend that illicit sexual act part of the law was not limited only to commercial acts when answering this question? I think the heart of what I'm trying to understand wouldn't change if that law were slightly different and that's easier then my rewriting all of the above.

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