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Dec 24, 2022 at 1:03 answer added Mary timeline score: 0
Mar 22, 2021 at 13:45 vote accept Libra
Aug 30, 2020 at 22:05 answer added gnasher729 timeline score: 1
Aug 30, 2020 at 16:41 comment added Nate Eldredge These might help answer your question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/41464/… law.stackexchange.com/questions/1667/… law.stackexchange.com/questions/24971/…
Aug 30, 2020 at 16:12 history edited Libra CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 30, 2020 at 13:27 comment added Michael Seifert Not in the US, but the Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 lays out a procedure for men in England and Wales convicted of homosexual acts to apply for a pardon. (The laws against homosexual acts were themselves repealed in 1967.) However, it's important to note that there had to specifically be a law passed to allow for such applications to be made.
Aug 30, 2020 at 7:11 comment added Trish note that while some states legalized the material, the federal statues still make it illegal.
Aug 30, 2020 at 4:38 history edited Libra CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 30, 2020 at 1:48 answer added user6726 timeline score: 5
Aug 30, 2020 at 1:28 comment added Ron Beyer On what basis? It was a crime then, they broke the law. Law's aren't typically retroactive for the same reason that something legal X years ago becoming illegal now doesn't mean they can be punished for past digressions.
Aug 30, 2020 at 1:28 comment added phoog I suspect that the answer is, in general, no, unless the state in question has specifically authorized it (which seems unlikely, given the administrative headaches). Are you interested in a particular state?
Aug 30, 2020 at 1:13 history asked Libra CC BY-SA 4.0