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Dec 11, 2020 at 20:47 comment added Libra "If it was fit on the 20th and became unfit between then and the 1st, that would". be evidence of bad intent, right? If it were a due to a force of nature, the landlord has a duty to notify the prospective tenant, right?
Dec 10, 2020 at 1:16 comment added Dale M @Libra no. Although if it was fit on the 20th and became unfit between then and the 1st, that would.
Dec 9, 2020 at 23:13 comment added Libra Perhaps I gave you the wrong set of (hypothetical) facts. Suppose the landlord had "represented and warranted that the apartment was fit for habitation on the 20th" (and the tenant had not seen that the place was "unfit.") The tenant discovers the "unfitness" on the first of the following month. Would that change your answer?
Dec 9, 2020 at 21:15 history answered Dale M CC BY-SA 4.0