In the 1970s, one after another of the U.S. states switched to "no fault divorce. This is, divorce could be granted to couples without either one of them proving that the other had committed certain offenses that qualified as "faults" (adultery, desertion, etc.)

Yet, my understanding is that "marital behavior" is a factor in determining the terms of the divorce. That is alimony, property division, child custody, etc. Are these actually "fault" issues?

To what extent are the above items distributed on "equitable" (economic) grounds, and to what extent are they decided on "fault" grounds relating to marital conduct?

This question could apply to any of the United States, but the ones I'm most interested in are the ones I've lived in, that is, New York and California.

In the 1970s, one after another of the U.S. states switched to "no fault" divorce. This is, divorce could be granted to couples without either one of them proving that the other had committed certain offenses that qualified as "faults" (adultery, desertion, etc.)

Yet, my understanding is that "marital behavior" is a factor in determining the terms of the divorce. That is alimony, property division, child custody, etc. Are these actually "fault" issues?

To what extent are the above items distributed on "equitable" (economic) grounds, and to what extent are they decided on "fault" grounds relating to marital conduct?

This question could apply to any of the United States, but the ones I'm most interested in are the ones I've lived in, that is, New York and California.