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Jun 17, 2022 at 15:33 comment added FluidCode I think this answer is off topic. There are many cases where laws apply only to the citizens of that country, like treason or the sanctions against Cuba. So a case where the citizenship is relevant does exist. The case of Julian Assange is not relevant because he is accused of committing crimes across the border (inciting people in the US to reveal secret information).
Jan 13, 2022 at 22:39 vote accept Bruce
Jan 13, 2022 at 22:38 comment added Bruce Great answer (+1). I think you partly covered the objection of @JohnBollinger in the comment about retroactively making things illegal. The case where they make you a citizen and then wait for you to do something illegal still stands. But, I feel that your discussion about citizenship not actually being required anyway more or less fills in that gap. In effect, if a country did declare someone a citizen so they could prosecute they are doing the equivalent of declaring them a person of interest. They are putting a target on their back. If other countries go along with it - then it has force.
Jan 13, 2022 at 19:14 comment added John Bollinger This is a good answer (+1), but it would be better if it more clearly spoke to the circumstances hypothesized in the OP's linked question, wherein holding U.S. citizenship is a necessary element of the offense.
S Jan 13, 2022 at 13:10 review First answers
Jan 13, 2022 at 13:16
S Jan 13, 2022 at 13:10 history answered Brandon Rubeck CC BY-SA 4.0