Timeline for Constitutional Race-Conscious Policies
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 29, 2023 at 22:49 | comment | added | Test | 1. So is the government allowed to create race tests based on claims of non-governmental inequality in the distant past? That's the core of the question in the bottom section. 2. The covenants had no legal force and did not affect anyone, other than making people feel bad. Of course different ethnicities have exercised preferences against one another since time immemorial, but this was in fact no more "restrictive" than homeowners who chose who to sell to based on race. | |
| May 28, 2023 at 16:19 | comment | added | RonJohn | "The "would have" part refers to the fact that a person may have been interested in buying a particular house but gave up when they were told that there is a racially restrictive covenant associated with the property." ISTM that it's a high bar to cross for a person to demonstrate that they (or their parents) wanted to buy a house 55+ years ago, and had the financial ability (because, honestly, wanting to and "having the ability to pay for" are radically different), but gave up because of a racial covenant or deed restriction. | |
| May 28, 2023 at 13:57 | comment | added | jmoreno | Could use a tl:dr along the lines of “Washington law is not based upon race but on prior racial covenants (which are and were legal to have but not legally enforceable)” | |
| May 27, 2023 at 23:56 | history | answered | user6726 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |