Say person A (a US citizen) makes a monetary demand on person B (a non-US citizen) over a dealing in the US whose juristiction is the US. Assume that B a citizen of, and resides in, a "1st world" country that is "friendly" with the US. Say A sues B in a US court and succeeds. Can A then take legal action in B's country to compel him to satify the order made by the US court?
Further, if the B suspects he might lose were the matter to go to court, could B preemptively organise that he have no US assets (by moving any money he does have there offshore) and volutarily declare himself bankrupt in the US (being now unable to pay his debts) to avoid have the law suit?