If a person owns (100%) a property and is subject to a homeowner's association (HA) contract, but defaults on taxes, after which the property is sold via a tax lien sale, does the HA contract become null, and that property is no longer bound to the HA?

  • I suspect not, but the details likely depend on the jurisdiction. – phoog Jun 20 '16 at 18:55
  • @phoog That's my guess. Would be interesting to have examples of either way. – Adam Davis Jun 20 '16 at 19:30
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    Homeowner Associations carry, generally, deed restrictions. No matter who owns the property it is subject to the HOA. Some HOAs may be voluntary contracts in which case each homeowner can decide. I didn't make this an answer because there may be jurisdictions or examples where this is not the case but I don't know of any. HOA law is at least state specific. – Dave D Jun 20 '16 at 19:47
  • @DaveDSo with a deed restriction, even the government would be bound by their terms, and so would any following owners? – Adam Davis Jun 20 '16 at 19:50
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    I think the buyer buys direct from the defaulting party. – Martin Bonner Feb 14 '17 at 14:27

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