I'm curious how royalties are handled for orchestral compositions (e.g. symphonies, concerti, quartets, etc.) in modern times (20th Century and later).
For example, Dmitri Shostakovich's compositions are presumably still under copyright in Western Europe and the USA, since it's been less than 75 years since his death, and all his compositions were published after January 1, 1923.
(I'm picking Shostakovich in particular since I've grown fond of his symphonies, concerti, and other works in the past few years and have amassed a collection of CD's and digital downloads of many recordings and performances. His body of work would presumably fall under current copyright laws internationally, e.g. Berne Convention, etc. since all his compositions were published in the 20th Century.)
- Does the composer receive any royalties from the sale of this recording?
- I'm assuming the record label collects mechanical royalties and profits from the sale of the album - do they usually give a flat fee or a percentage of sales (or both) to the orchestra?
The Pacific Arts Trio (also featuring Previn) stages a performance of Shostakovich's Piano Trio, Op. 67. This performance is presumably for a paying audience, of which the trio is expected to earn some performance royalties as a "...life raft for the three of us."
- Does the composer receive any royalties from this particular performance? Or, from any contemporary public performance of his compositions still falling under copyright protection?
- If not from particular public performances, then is the composer's only source of royalties from publishing the written work (i.e. sheet music score)?
Please note that I'm using the present tense wherever I can here to inquire about how copyright protection and performance royalties work in the modern sense. I already have a pretty good idea (still unclear on some parts) how royalties work for contemporary popular rock/country/R&B music, etc.