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I am interested in a property and approximately 300 acres of associated land in the UK. The has a 1000 year long lease with a peppercorn ground rent and no service charge. I understand that every case is different and you aren't psychic, I have not as yet seen a copy of the lease which will answer this question in relation to my specific case, but I am interested in the general case.

  1. What benefit does selling such a leasehold confer to the freeholder, which sale of the relevant freehold would not?

  2. Does such a lease provide a clue as to the situation in which the leasehold was sold? Possible (but likely incorrect) example: The seller was in shared ownership of the freehold and they were granted a long leasehold to prevent needing to renew the lease, but allow the person rights over the land.

  3. What general disadvantages does owning such a leasehold have in comparison to owning the freehold, other than the possibility for a specific lease to limit the leaseholders rights over the land?

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What benefit does selling such a leasehold confer to the freeholder, which sale of the relevant freehold would not?

It reverts to the freeholder (or more specifically, their heirs or assignees) after 1,000 years

Does such a lease provide a clue as to the situation in which the leasehold was sold? Possible (but likely incorrect) example: The seller was in shared ownership of the freehold and they were granted a long leasehold to prevent needing to renew the lease, but allow the person rights over the land.

Quite a lot of land in England is under such long term leases. It was a common way for the landed nobles to get long term cash flows without losing title to the land. Of course, most such leases were made when there was no such thing as inflation which has made the rental laughably small.

What general disadvantages does owning such a leasehold have in comparison to owning the freehold, other than the possibility for a specific lease to limit the leaseholders rights over the land?

As above.

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