This is a specific question about English Construction Law.
- Domestic client
- JCT ICD Contract (with provisions for adjudication)
Although I may have misconstrued the point, I've read somewhere that domestic clients don't have a right to adjudication. But surely they do if the contract says they do ?!?!
In the specific example which prompted the question, having reached practical completion the Employer has taken possession and so is now 'resident owner' - but they lived elsewhere at the time the JCT Intermediate Contract was let, having purchased the property shortly before instructing the works. So, it's not (what I would understand by the term) 'a resident owner contract', and the Employer wasn't 'a resident owner' when the contract began.
Does that have any bearing on the matter?