This is a specific question about English Construction Law.
- Domestic client
- JCT ICD Contract (with provisions for adjudication)
Although I may have misconstrued the point, I've read somewhere that domestic clients don't have a right to adjudication. But surely they do if the contract says they do ?!?!
EDIT:
In the specific example which prompted the question, having reached practical completion the Employer has taken possession and so is now 'resident owner' - but they lived elsewhere at the time the JCT Intermediate Contract was let, having purchased the property shortly before instructing the works. So, it's not (what I would understand by the term) 'a resident owner contract', and the Employer wasn't 'a resident owner' when the contract began.
Does that have any bearing on the matter?