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Suppose a house was rented two years ago in California, on a two year lease.

If when the lease expired, the landlord refuses to renew, citing an upcoming balloon payment that would not be covered by the rent as the reason, what recourse does the tenant have?

  • Welcome! Here we don't really give legal advice, but can give legal information. I've removed parts of your question that seem to request legal advice, but please make further edits if my changes have strayed too far from your intention. – jimsug Jul 29 '15 at 6:29
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If the lease has expired and the tenant does not have an option then the landlord is under no obligation to offer a new lease; they do not have to give any reason.

They would still need to comply with the notice periods in the lease or it will revert to a month-by-month contract; in that case, the notice period is 1 month.

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