This morning, on Law Stack exchange there was an item by someone which included the following comment:
A police officer detains you by issuing a command of some sort. For example, "Stop, stay here." If a citizen issues you the same command, and a "reasonable person" would consider it backed up with the same threat of force as that implied by the police, then the citizen has committed assault. If the citizen has merely obstructed your path without threatening you then they have definitely not committed assault.
Source: What power do I have as a driver if my interstate route is blocked by a protest?
Firstly, is this true in the United States? Secondly, is it true in the UK? I found this interesting summary but I don't think it quite covers the statement above.
At common law, an "assault" consists of placing someone in fear of an unwanted touching
Source: https://law.stackexchange.com/a/1226/9845
Would, for example, a stranger shouting demands at you in order to attempt to obtain compliance with those demands count as assault within the UK?