Let's say an elected official have a Twitter account.
And let's say this elected official is using twitter to communicate information to the public relevant to the elected position.
And let's say this elected official decides to block users.
This means he is in that case actively withholding information from selected individuals.
It that censoring?
Of course there is a big loophole here if the elected officials private Twitter account is not used in any way to tweet information about the government office he holds. But the minute he tweets about his work as the position he holds after he entered the office things would change.
I am asking because there was a case in Sweden where a government organisation (just one of the many organisations within the government) had a Twitter account and for some reason blocked a user. Then, without even going to court, a judge said and I am paraphrasing: "You may not block users on a medium you are communication official information with because that is censoring." The kicker in that case was because Twitter was used to give information from the government and thus they could not block people and they have to unblock everyone. Would the same thing apply in the USA?