A bit of context: Recently the Romanian Justice Ministry signed a executive order to change the penal code decriminalizing "abuse of power" if the damage is less than 200000 RON (Aprox: 50.000 USD / 45000 EURO) everything less than that is subject of labor law.

Is it normal to have minimum financial damage value for such an act to become felony ?

Only thing I could find is Texas code where it becomes a state felony above 2.500 USD (and I'm not sure about that even, because it says "value of thing misused" which for me doesn't equate with damage)

I'm not sure if abuse of power is the correct term (it's a literal translation from Romanian) so here is the definition: The act of civil servant, who, in the exercise of his duties, knowingly, does not act or acts incorrectly and thereby causing harm legal interests of a person

Some examples:

Policeman giving you I fine without real cause because he doesn't like you, your race or gender

City council member preferentially selecting streets to be repaired based on his own house location

Mayor hiring his own nephew and allowing him not work at all for the job he was hired to do

Taking or giving bribe is another infraction, different from this one, at least in Romanian Penal Code.

I appreciate any references to similar articles in any penal code, or even suggestions for google keywords.

  • This is a Q&A site and I am having trouble finding a question in your post
    – Dale M
    Feb 2, 2017 at 20:22
  • What do you mean by "international penal codes"? Do you mean "penal codes, in any jurisdiction"?
    – user6726
    Feb 2, 2017 at 20:22
  • @DaleM, clarified
    – Sorin
    Feb 2, 2017 at 20:28
  • @user6726, yes, clarified
    – Sorin
    Feb 2, 2017 at 20:28
  • 1
    @DaleM plays the devil's advocate. If the question asked about the stated crime, but asked about what crime it is, and explicitly stated that it is open to answers concerning all jurisdictions, it would be on-topic. I've seen hundreds of those questions, and this one feels very similar.
    – Zizouz212
    Feb 3, 2017 at 0:30

2 Answers 2


Colorado has what is called a "gift ban" which is a prohibition against giving anything of value to any state or local public official as a gift, whether or not there is any attempt to influence the official in his official capacity (subject to certain exceptions, for example, for family members giving normal family gifts).

The threshold for a gift to qualify under the gift ban is $50 (which makes $49.99 a popular price at expensive restaurants near the capital). This was adjusted for inflation in 2011 and in 2015, but inflation has been very low in the last ten years, so it would only be slightly more than $50 now.

  • bribery is a different infraction, the act I'm asking about is more about officials acting in his own interest instead of the state/person's interest
    – Sorin
    Feb 7, 2017 at 9:16

I think he means something like this: http://www.statutes.legis.state.tx.us/Docs/PE/htm/PE.39.htm Especially Sec. 39.02. (c) (4) and up

  • Srry didn;t see all the question. I see he already got that texas example.Another example is from french penal code:SECTION I ABUSE OF AUTHORITY DIRECTED AGAINST THE PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION Articles 432-1 to 432-3 ARTICLE 432-1 The taking of measures designed to obstruct the implementation of a law, committed by a persson holding public authority in the discharge of his office, is punished by five years' imprisonment and a fine of €75,000. So it seems there is no amount of money. You just abuse your power and bam>jail time.And some nice fine as a bonus
    – Somebody
    Feb 3, 2017 at 17:11

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