What happens to the precedent (or whatever their interpretation is called) of the judicial branch when a constitution (like in the USA), is amended?
Like, if a constitution said some meats were stupid and bad, and a court case decides that ham is totally chill, and isn't part of the "some meats" group; but the constitution gets amended to say that ham is also stupid. Given this example, what would happen to the court precedent, and the world that's gotten used to having legal ham?