I have had an ongoing contract with a non-US company, let's call it A. Now a US company B has purchased the A's asset — a software product I have been working on for A. A is now telling me that B has purchased the contract with me as well, and therefore I should now bill B and not A.
A quote from here says:
contracts held by a target, and acquired by a purchaser, will often require the consent of the counterparty in the context of an asset deal
B has not yet approached me in regards to the contract. Am I right assuming that I cannot therefore bill B yet and should continue billing A until they negotiate signing of my contract with B?