In the United States, under the Taking Clause of the Fifth Amendment, the Federal Government's power of Eminent Domain is established:
nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.
Therefore, even in a case where the use of Eminent Domain went against the expressed wishes of a given State, so long as it was "justly compensated" the Federal Government has full legal authority of the claiming of land.
My question is: why? I know arguments about public necessity, and the origins of the practice in English Common Law, but what I'm looking for, is twofold:
- Where in the Constitution is it stated the Federal Government has full legal jurisdiction over all State land?
- Is this interpretation (that the Federal Government has complete control over State land) actually correct?