Does Selective Enforcement contradict Equal Protection?
Obviously,
it may be impractical for police officers to issue traffic tickets to every driver they observe exceeding the speed limit, so they may have no choice but to limit action to the most flagrant examples of reckless driving
On the other hand
No State shall ... deny to any person ... the equal protection of the laws
so, technically, the argument that "the officer ticketed me but not this other guy driving next to me at the same speed" should cause the ticket to be thrown out (or this other guy to be immediately ticketed right then and there).
Of course the judge will laugh and dismiss this argument (otherwise everyone would use it to get out of a ticket), but on what logic?
Would the officer saying something like "he was also driving dangerously but I did not write him the 'reckless driving' ticket because I am nice, but I will now if that would make him happy" be a sufficient explanation for the judge?
Can the defense in a criminal case point out to numerous similar un-prosecuted cases and have its own case dismissed based on the 14th amendment? Has it ever happen? E.g., Mr.X is being prosecuted for jaywalking.
- Defense: here is a video of Ms.A jaywalking and an officer watching and doing nothing
- Prosecution: we don't prosecute women for jaywalking because "a valid argument"
- D: here a video of Mr.B jaywalking and an officer watching and doing nothing
- P: Mr.B is 7 feet tall and we don't prosecute tall people for jaywalking because "a valid argument"
- D: here a video of Mr.C jaywalking (and he is the same height as the defendant Mr.X) and an officer watching and doing nothing
- P: Mr.C is wearing a blue suite and we don't prosecute blue suites for jaywalking because "a valid argument"
- D: here a video of Mr.D jaywalking (and he is the same height as the defendant Mr.X and is wearing a similar jacket to Mr.X's) and an officer watching and doing nothing
- P: Mr.D is smiling and we don't prosecute smiling people for jaywalking because "a valid argument"
- D: here a video of Mr.E jaywalking (and he is the same height as the defendant Mr.X and is wearing a similar jacket to Mr.X's, and is not smiling) and an officer watching and doing nothing
- P: Mr.E is wearing glasses and we don't prosecute people with glasses for jaywalking because "a valid argument"
Wayte v. United States 470 U.S. 598 (1985)
In our criminal justice system, the Government retains "broad discretion" as to whom to prosecute. [...] This broad discretion rests largely on the recognition that the decision to prosecute is particularly ill-suited to judicial review. Such factors as the strength of the case, the prosecution's general deterrence value, the Government's enforcement priorities, and the case's relationship to the Government's overall enforcement plan are not readily susceptible to the kind of analysis the courts are competent to undertake.
Does this mean that the courts can/will never challenge "decision to prosecute"?
(Again, I am interested in theory and logic more than practicality).