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I am looking to purchase some land in Texas that is being auctioned for back taxes. It was made clear that the auctioneers will not be telling anybody that the property is landlocked, and they will falsely assume that the land has access to main roads because of a pre-existing road built that is technically not on that property and no easement has been given.

I was also told that it's illegal to tell others at the time of the auction that it's landlocked because that's "cooling the bid."

Is it legal to auction the property without disclosing the VERY relevant detail that the land is landlocked?

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    Would a buyer be able to determine that fact by exercising due diligence? In other words, isn't it a matter of public record? – phoog Feb 2 '18 at 16:19
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    "I was also told that it's illegal to tell others..." Who told you this? The auctioneer? And, generally, it is the buyer's responsibility to do their research in public records and determine that the land is landlocked. – BlueDogRanch Feb 2 '18 at 17:32
  • How do you know that there is no easement for that road you mentioned? – A.fm. Feb 2 '18 at 19:18
  • I know there is no easement because I know the people who own the land that borders it on all sides. – leigero Feb 2 '18 at 21:29
  • I thought "landlocked" normally referred to areas that do not have access to oceans/large bodies of water. Your meaning seems to be even stricter than that. – JAB Feb 2 '18 at 21:34

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