0

There are UEFA statutes in which the criteria for membership in that organisation are next (on the 9th page):

https://www.uefa.com/MultimediaFiles/Download/OfficialDocument/uefaorg/WhatUEFAis/02/48/30/28/2483028_DOWNLOAD.pdf

So, a football association must represent and govern all maters related to football, on the territory of the sovereign state (recognized by the majority of the UN members) in order to become an UEFA member. That led to problems when Kosovo football federation (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kosovo_national_football_team) applied for the UEFA membership, because Serbian football association (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Serbia_national_football_team) didn't want them to join (this is crude simplification), because they aren't full UN member.

I am wondering could UEFA membership criteria be changed in such a way that excludes the necessity for the representation of UN member by an independent football association? Also, how much would that formulation be practical, because almost all current UEFA members represents sovereign states?

I am interested in this because current criteria obviously leave legal space for political games to be played through this way.

|improve this question|||||
  • If the above is true, I'd be curious as to how this works regarding the English, Scottish, etc. football associations. – owjburnham Apr 6 '18 at 20:23
1

Yes, it could be changed in any way the members, acting in accordance with the charter, like.

The likelihood of such a change is virtually nil.

|improve this answer|||||

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.