While I read one of the updated privacy policies (PP) this week, the following section of a privacy policy seemed… off:
We may change this Privacy Policy from time to time, and all changes will be effective at the time we post them. If we believe there is a significant change to this Privacy Policy or our data collection and use practices, we will indicate on our websites that our Privacy Policy has changed prior to the change becoming effective.
While the website indication is probably enough if I'm an active user, this service stores account information, and I might not visit it for a long time and therefore miss the indication on the website. If the new PP now contains a section that allows third parties to use my data I might notice that too late.
For simplicity, this question concerns data that was already stored when a privacy policy changed, not newly acquired data afterwards.
Is a change of a privacy policy without explicit consent valid under the GDPR? If I understand Article 6 (1) a) correctly, the PP must not add change the purposes a data subject has given consent to, unless at least one of Article 6 (1) b)-f) holds.
(This is related to terms-of-service changes without notice, which, at least in Germany, are only allowed if the possible causes where explicitly listed, as far as I know).