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I need to understand when and where the state became the property owner of the roads and highways the people bought and paid for? since the state is a non-entity, it can not own, possess or control property it holds no legal title to. The people however, do own the roads, as their money was used to construct them, pay for the workers to build them, and paid for the equipment and materials used in their construction, so by right and title, the people are trhe owners of the roads we use, as as property owners, we DO have the right to make use of them as we see fit, the state holds no deed, title or lease on our property. In fact, even the state, is the sole property of the people.

Please tell us when we silently transferred our rights into privileges to bew controlled by the state, without consent or law?

When and where, did the state decide on its own, that the roads we paid to have built, fell under its sole control and administration?

This appears to be a clear case of theft of property without due process. The state does not automatically gain ownership or control of property it never held legal title to, and again, being a non-entity(person), the state can not own anything, as all property is owned by the people, not the state, which it too, iks the sole property of the people, and not self-created.

Again, the fact remains, the state decided to usurp our rights and property, and took possession of our roads without due process, and without legal power or precedent.

closed as unclear what you're asking by Nij, Free Radical, SJuan76, feetwet Jun 6 '18 at 21:19

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    Note that "the people" is also a non-entity. – user6726 Jun 5 '18 at 23:47
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    You are basing a lot of "facts" on very incorrect assumptions about how control of property works in the country. This sounds like more of a rant/sovereign citizen ideal. The thing this boils down to is that your tax money paid for public projects, which belong to the public, and are under the control of our publicly elected officials/appointed officers. The "State" in your rant is just that, and holds our public interests so that no one person may control it, but the public as a whole. – Ron Beyer Jun 6 '18 at 0:51
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    VTC as unclear, since a majority of the things here are so factually wrong as to make the question unpremised, and nothing answerable. – Nij Jun 6 '18 at 3:00
  • Closed as "rant disguised as a question." – feetwet Jun 6 '18 at 21:19
  • A lot of roads use federal money too. – mkennedy Jun 6 '18 at 23:34
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We in the United States transferred our rights to property into privileges to be controlled by the state December 15, 1791, when we ratified the Fifth Amendment to the United States Constitution. It pretty clearly contemplates the government's right to seize property:

No person shall ... be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.

That process is generally known as "appropriation" or "eminent domain." The Supreme Court allows both the states and the federal government to exercise this power, as long as it happens after the owner is provided "due process" (notice of the government's plan to take the property and an opportunity to be heard as to why it should not) and "just compensation" (usually the market value at the time the government seizes the property).

I don't think you'll find a court anywhere that would agree with you that the state is not an entity, that the state cannot own anything, that all property is owned by the people, etc.

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