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Scenario:

  • Business X in country A sells software with a subscription license.
  • Business Y in country B pays monthly for software from X.
  • Country A and B are members of the Berne Convention
  • Example sanctions would apply to software sold by X.

Would the end result be the same for the following scenarios? Would it be legal for business Y to continue using the software without paying for it? If not, how would Y continue to legally use the software?

  1. Country A places sanctions on country B
  2. Country B places sanctions on country A
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  • Why would sanctions make it legal? If my country says I cannot send payments to someone, it doesn't authorize me to take that person's property without paying for it. The same principle should apply to software license fees. A more useful question might be what to do if you have an ongoing licensing agreement that falls under sanctions. Perhaps something similar to escrow would be indicated. – phoog Jun 15 '18 at 15:59
  • I'll update my question to specify that being the case. – Brett Allen Jun 15 '18 at 16:00
  • Updated, thanks for the suggestion! The reason I asked this question is due to recent news in politics and wondering how sanctions might affect the US software industry if they were placed on us. – Brett Allen Jun 15 '18 at 16:11

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