When I spoke with my family doctor he was under the impression that HIPAA privacy rules applied to EVERY doctor or health care provider. Also a professor who teaches classes for emergency medical responders said the same thing.
HIPAA law says this:
42 USC 1320d-1: General requirements for adoption of standards a) Applicability: Any standard adopted under this part shall apply, in whole or in part, to the following persons:
- A health plan.
- A health care clearinghouse.
- A health care provider who transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a transaction referred to in section 1320d–2(a)(1) of this title.
HIPAA Administrative Simplification Regulation Text expands it to associates:
§ 160.102 Applicability.
(a) Except as otherwise provided, the standards, requirements, and implementation specifications adopted under this subchapter apply to the following entities:
- A health plan.
- A health care clearinghouse.
- A health care provider who transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a transaction covered by this subchapter.
(b) Where provided, the standards, requirements, and implementation specifications adopted under this subchapter apply to a business associate.
It seems clear that this DOES NOT apply to my doctor. He has no contract with Medicare or any other health care organization (cannot be called a business associate). He does not transmit PHI (Private Health Information) in electronic form. He does not take insurance. HIPAA only regulates those who send information electronically. It does not regulate everyone.
This situation may be rare in our modern world but it happens. So who is wrong: me or the doctor?