CA Penal Code 632 sets forth that all parties must be notified that a conversation is to be recorded.
I have a person whom I'd like to assist in a proceeding, possibly, given the situation is correct.
I live in a different state, Texas, which is not a dual consent state.
Am I correct in thinking that I can record a phone call with a California resident, while I'm located in Texas? The product of which would eventually be used in a California court if all goes well.
EDIT for better context:
1 - The phone call would be made from Texas, by a Texas resident;
2 - The phone call would be made to the wife of a family member (who both live and are married in California);
3 - The recording would be given to the husband's attorney, who would then try the divorce/custody case in the State of California with the recording as evidence (if admissible, granted I'm not stepping on any laws)
I'm not concerned that I'd get in trouble as a Texas resident. I'm concerned about admissibility in California Family Courts.