Company A is selling products to Company B at a highly discounted price. Part of the agreement is that Company B cannot resell the products.
Consider the following clause in a contract between the two companies:
Company B may not resell any products purchased from Company A at a discounted price.
Now consider the same clause, but with a reason provided:
In order to prevent toilets from overflowing, Company B may not resell any products purchased from Company A at a discounted price.
Suppose the 2nd clause is in effect and Company B goes ahead and turns a profit by reselling the discounted products. However, no toilets overflowed as a result of this action. Is the clause weakened (harder to enforce) due to a nonsensible reason being provided?
Obviously the "reason" is hypothetical, but I believe the question stays the same if you substitute anything in its place that did not occur as a result of the resale.