IMHO one factor which would be considered in some jurisdictions when deciding if a crime was committed in your scenario is that the cash in a cashier's drawer and in the bank vault is either the property of various depositors or else the property of the corporation that owns the bank, and thus of its shareholders, or possibly a mixture of the property of both.
The money acquired in your scenario is not the property of the cashier or of the bank manager. Thus the cashier and the bank manager don't have unlimited authority to hand out money like they would if it was their own money. Instead they are restricted to handing out money to those that it is their bank's policy to hand out money to, and in the amounts that it is their bank's policy.
Thus a person who makes bank employees pay him money he is not entitled to is making them steal money from its rightful owners. He is making them commit a crime. If person A tries to make person B commit a crime that person B wouldn't want to, and if person A succeeds in making person B commit that crime, person A should be considered to be equally guilty of the crime he makes person B commit, and he would be considered equally guilty inmost or all legal jurisdictions.
But what if the bank has a policy of giving the bank robber what he asks for and not making any trouble for him in hope that he leaves without harming any one? In that case the bank employees are following bank policy and doing as authorized. Therefore they are not stealing from the bank and the robber hasn't forced them to steal from the bank but has made a withdrawal that doesn't violate bank policy. So the bank robber shouldn't have committed any crimes, right?
Except that the nonviolent bank robber has let the bank employees think that he might be, and probably is, an evil, violent, homicidal bank robber. And thus he has acquired money from the bank by lying by omission about being a nonviolent bank robber, and thus by fraud, which is stealing. So the nonviolent bank robber is a criminal of a different type and might be given too options when arrested. He might testify that he is nonviolent and would never have hurt anyone, and thus be convicted of stealing by fraud, or else testify that he is violent and would have used force if opposed, and thus be convicted of using the threat of violence to commit bank robbery.
I suspect that any legal loophole that anyone can think of has been thought of before by criminals and lawmakers and has been closed by legistation and/or legal precedents in various trials.