Suppose the owner of a lot on which a mobile home is situated conveys the lot to a grantee, with no mention of the mobile home in the deed of conveyance and no discussion of the issue between the parties. Should the grantor or the grantee then own the mobile home?
Here is my reasoning. Correct me if I have any misconceptions please.
Let us assume the mobile home is not on wheels (if it is on wheels it is not a fixture, meaning it would belong to the grantor). On the one hand it appears to be a fixture. Therefore it would belong to the grantee. According to the reasonable person test for fixtures (which I am not sure is a real thing, let me know if it is or isn't) if a reasonable person would believe that a "fixture " is part of the property then it is indeed part of the property. I think it is reasonable to assume that it is. Then again the fact that it isn't mentioned in the deed should raise eyebrows for the reasonable person. So I'm really not sure if this passes the reasonable person test.
HOWEVER the mobile home is not mentioned in the deed. Isn't a deed supposed to include an accurate description of the land? Failure to mention it in the deed should mean that it is not part of the conveyance right?
In conclusion I have no idea what the answer is.