Just found out that my wife's grandfather had intended to sell a vacant lot he owned to one of his sons (my wife's uncle), but through some error this never happened. For the past 15 or so years since he died, the lot has remained in the grandfather's name and not the uncle's.
Now the uncle wants my wife to sign a quitclaim deed, which she has no problem signing, but we do not know if taxes have been paid on this lot.
Does signing the quitclaim deed acknowledge that my wife does have an interest in the property and, more importantly, does this mean that she may be responsible for a portion of the back taxes?