I have been told that "statutory law" is a "blunt instrument" (presumably due to the cost of change?) and that the UK legal system has developed a system whereby a more flexible "case law" is used to ameliorate this problem, leading to a legal system that is well regarded.

Does the law-making system of the European Union have a similar design, or is my understanding incorrect?

  • Without firther specifying what you're looking for, it sounds like you're comparing apples and oranges. The EU court has in fact called the EU a "new legal order." – DPenner1 Jan 24 '19 at 13:16
  • Common law (what you're referring to as "case law") originated before statute law. See here and here. – Steve Melnikoff Jan 24 '19 at 15:05
  • Related law.stackexchange.com/q/22149/344 – Dale M Jan 24 '19 at 19:55

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.