Suppose I am driving in Minnesota with PIP (required for a Minnesota auto insurance policy) and get hit by another driver (100% his fault, 0% my fault), causing my arm to be broken and a resulting $3,000 medical bill. My understanding is that my insurance company will fully pay for this, due to Minnesota's "No-Fault" system.
But, suppose I am instead visiting Minnesota with insurance provided by Wisconsin with no PIP. Does Minnesota's "No-Fault" system actually then prevent me from ever getting any money from the other driver, or from the other driver's insurance company? In other words, will I need to pay this $3,000 out of pocket without ever getting even $1 reimbursed? As for the Wisconsin insurance, assume it is the worst policy allowed by Wisconsin law (though I would guess some Wisconsin insurers might help me, depending on options like underinsured coverage, etc.)
An old question makes me think the answer is Yes, but my new question here is about medical damage (and, as far as I can tell, most "No-Fault" states limit claims only for medical damage, not for property damage). As in that old question, it seems surprising that a state law would somehow prevent me from even filing a civil lawsuit!