An individual recently claimed to have run into a situation where he was charged with "fraudulent contract activities" in a situation that my (admittedly quite limited) understanding of contract law says should not have violated any laws.
The individual in question was donating sperm as a known sperm donor to a lesbian couple. The couple wanted to sign a contract saying that the resulting child would be legally theirs and he wouldn't file for child support etc. The individual claims he informed the couple that in his state there is already legal precedent that states these sort of contracts are unenforceable as void, but since the couple was insistent on signing the contract anyways he eventually agreed to do so, even while telling them it was not legally binding.
He claims he was sued for "fraudulent contract activities" (his exact words). Supposedly because he admitted he knew the contract was meaningless he was now guilty of fraud by signing it. However, he gained no benefit from the contract, as the same scenario would have happened exactly as it is without a contract, and he claims he clearly explained the contract was worthless. I find it odd that he could be charged with anything under such a situation. He makes it sound like this is a criminal charge, as opposed to some sort of civil case, and he says the judge chose to 'charge' him.
Again, common law, and contract in particular, has always seemed to apply common sense so I was a little skeptical. Of course the individual making the claim also has a history of questionable truthhoods as well, and is making claims that further his personal agenda, so I'm not quite willing to take his words as 100% true.
Would this scenario warrant any kind of potential fraud charges, civil or criminal? The individual in question lives in Oklahoma so probably that's where the contract was signed.