I recently read about a man (Bob) who married a woman (Alice) who already had a daughter from a previous relationship. Bob wanted more children, and Alice was happy to oblige. However, after several years of trying, they never managed to conceive. They approached doctors, who tested Bob for infertility; when those results showed that Bob was fertile, Alice would insist they were incorrect because she knows she's fertile (she's already given birth to a daughter after all). After 13 years and still not being able to conceive, they split up.
18 months after they split up, Bob found out that Alice was lying: she was infertile, and she knew she was infertile, because she had undergone tubal ligation (a surgical procedure which permanently renders her infertile) before they married. Needless to say Bob was infuriated.
Question: does Bob have any legal recourse in this case? Does it matter if genders were reversed (since with genders reversed, the woman could have passed menopause and therefore have no chance of having children)?