There is a local (but nationally recognized) law firm that has this commercial. The "meat" of the commercial is this:
A biker is injured and the law firm goes after the insurance company. Company says it won't pay because of a law that is "on its side". Law firm goes to Madison (WI) and gets the law changed. Law firm recovers $2 million for client.
Now I was under the impression that you cannot hold somebody liable for events that transpired prior to a law being changed/created (ex post facto). Are there cases as above where an entity (person/business) can be held liable for actions prior to them being enacted in law?
For example if my township passed a statute that says "cutting your grass is a civil offense punishable by up to $X", and then sends me a fine for every year I've lived in the house, I don't think that would be enforceable.
I know that there are ex post facto laws in the US that are held such as the "Adam Walsh Child Protection and Safety Act" or the "Domestic Violence Offender Gun Ban" that were retroactive (mostly because they do not impose a punishment). I know that States are prohibited from passing ex post facto laws by Article 1: Section 10, Clause 1, but I'm specifically asking about the legitimacy of the law offices claim and how it could possibly be true.
I do not know what law the law firm got changed, they don't mention it even though they state pretty prominently that they were thanked for doing so publicly.