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Robert Schütze. European Union Law 2 ed. 2018. p. 534. All emboldenings are mine.

Why would the Court be strict on the express policy grounds mentioned in Article 36 and yet allow for implied – additional – grounds of justification at the same time?
      The explanation behind this apparent paradox is that Article 36 was originally designed against the backdrop of the international market model within which it was to apply to discriminatory national measures. But once Article 34 was seen – after Cassis – to cover non-discriminatory measures, the Court was caught in a dilemma: on the one hand, it wished to recognise that the expansion of the material scope of Article 34 had to trigger a – simultaneous – expansion of the potential grounds of justification;

  1. Why did "the expansion of the material scope of" Art. 34 have to trigger this simultaneous expansion of the potential grounds of justification?

yet, on the other hand, that expansion could not take place within Article 36 because that might invite the Member States to use the new grounds also for discriminatory measures and thereby undermine the Court’s tough stance here.

  1. How'd expanding the potential grounds of juridication within Art 36 "invite the Member States to use the new grounds also for discriminatory measures and thereby undermine the Court’s tough stance here"?

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Why couldn't potential grounds of justification be expanded within Art 36 TFEU? : eulaw

Q1: Because politics. If you say that more is prohibited, even stuff that before might have been thought okay, you'll want (as the Court) to be able to walk back on that in certain cases so as not to step on the toes of the Member States unduly.

Q2: If you give MSs more ways to restrict trade they'll do it. Plus, as the /u/f4dr states, you'd need treaty change (which of course is not within the Courts power anyway).

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