To give context so that my question may be better understood and not just disregarded as trolling, I have just read "Germany must Perish!" by author Theodore N. Kaufman. It's a very well-written book, which I'd recommend to anyone, that dates back to WW2 where the author makes the case that to stop Germany from creating more suffering, we should sterilize all German people and then put them into slavery.
Obviously, it is a pretty dated book and the world has changed a lot since then. But it got me thinking. Let's say that hypothetically there was someone who believed that a particular nation in Europe was about to go down that route again. For the sake of argument, let's say this nation is Germany (chose it randomly, no relation with the previous paragraph). Could this person legally create a peaceful political movement that would have as a goal to pass a law that would carry out the punishment outlined in Kaufman's book? The sterilization of, in this hypothetical case, Germany? Does EU law prohibit someone from advocating for that kind of position?
A second question would be: Let's say that this hypothetical person really believed Germany is about to be a threat again and thus puts his all into this movement until eventually, it has great popular support. Could the EU, within its systems, legally pass a law that says "We will sterilize all German citizens"? Or would that be illegal? Also, if it is illegal, I'd like to know which laws would have to be changed to make it legal. Just to see how this hypothetical political movement would have to operate in order to achieve Kaufman's goal.
Thank you in advance to any EU law expert who wishes to assist me to answer this hypothetical question.
**Edit 1: ** It has been pointed out that this kind of law would first be blocked by human rights courts and that finding out how to remove human rights is a political issue. Therefore to stay on-topic and not get into politics please assume that the necessary rights have been removed.