Following on from a comment I made on this question, I have a three part question.

If there were two, or more people on the title deed of a property, and one of those people let the property out without the express permission of the others, what recourse would the other party (or parties) have?

Would this change if there were, say 3 people on the title deed, and 2 of them let the property without consulting the third (that is, does it work like holding shares, where 51% is controlling)?

Finally, does the answer change if I substitute selling the property for letting it?

  • Are they join owners of the property, or do they have separate interests? If they are joint owners then any one of them could let the property, if they have individually separate interests, then you need the agreement of people totalling >50% ownership of property. – Shazamo Morebucks Aug 18 '19 at 11:53
  • They are joint owners – Paul Michaels Aug 18 '19 at 15:11
  • Then legally only one of them needs to give permission to rent. If the other owners explicitly disagree to renting, you will have to go to court. You will also have to go to court (application to partition the land) if you want to force the sale of the property without the approval of the others. – Shazamo Morebucks Aug 18 '19 at 22:39

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