Can a voided contract be amended?
Strictly speaking, what you refer to as amended contract is actually a new contract. The term of amended might have a connotation that some changes were made to a former contract while it still was in force (or prior thereto).
Is the amended contract, that is based on the first voided contract, valid and enforceable?
Yes, unless the clauses or misrepresentation of the new contract renders it unenforceable, regardless of how similar to the voided contract it looks. The new contract became binding and enforceable as soon as party A signed it.
The mere existence of similarities between the voided contract and the new one are mostly irrelevant for determining the enforceability of the new contract.
You did not specify what kind of misrepresentations induced party A to sign the initial contract. It is noteworthy that if certain types of misrepresentations persist in the new contract, party A might have forfeited his entitlement to void or get out of the new contract. That would qualify as what the Restatement (Second) of Contracts at § 152-154 calls "A Party Bear[ing] the Risk of a Mistake".
What if Party A felt pressured (due to financial reasons/limitations) to sign the amended contact? Is it enforceable?
A contract is void if duress or coercion by one of the parties prompted the other(s) to accept that contract. If the coercion is not reasonably traceable to party B, then party A's external circumstances usually are not cognizable as grounds for voiding the contract.