If it is alleged that some action or policy of the US federal government is acting in violation of federal law or the US constitution, it is common that someone will file a lawsuit in federal court requesting that the court issue an injunction against the federal government. For example, in the Trump travel ban case, injunctions were issued (though eventually overturned by the Supreme Court) to prevent the government from enforcing the travel ban.

However, state courts are also allowed to issue rulings based on federal law, and some people believe that the reason why the constitution allows jurisdiction stripping is that the state courts would still be available to grant relief based on federal law and the federal constitution. I wonder whether that is true in the case of injunctions against the federal government as well. If Congress were to eliminate the ability of federal courts to hear certain types of cases (in order to indirectly prevent them from issuing injunctions), would similar relief be available from state courts in such cases?

  1. According to the US constitution, do state courts have the authority to issue injunctions against the federal government or its agencies, on the basis that the federal government's actions violate federal law or the US constitution?
  2. If such authority does exist, can Congress remove it by statute?
  • This is what happened in the Nullification Crisis of 1832-1833. – user662852 Nov 23 '19 at 3:26

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