So this is a follow on question to this.
Lets say I buy an original art work (e.g., a painting, not a print) I would expect that the right to make reproductions would now transfer to myself; and would be rather upset if afterwards, the author started selling copies. I am after all paying a premium for the original.
(This is assuming a non work for hire situation)
Some of the answer on this state however that this is not always the case.
This US copyright office circular states:
The transfer[of copyright], however, generally must be made in writing...
So what I would like to know is: this is then case in other Berne Convention signitories, other than the US (since I don't live in the US).
Also if "generally" the transfer of copyright needs to be in writing, then what is then non general case.