Please consider the following situation:
- A (USA) company makes an offer to a (UK) individual.
- The company purchases an inbound ticket for the individual.
- The individual arrives.
- The individual does not have enough money to purchase an outbound ticket.
- The company has agreed to pay the individual.
- The company now insists that a freshly presented contract (which absolutely fails to honour the offer) must be signed in order for the money to be released.
- The individual is left with the decision -- to either sign the dishonourable contract and release the funds, or remain in the USA illegally.
- The individual signs the contract, purchases a plane ticket and leaves the country.
The company has demonstrably exploited the situation of the individual in order to coerce signing a contract.
Subsequently the individual wishes to force the company by law to honour the original agreement (which is from the President in writing (email)).
In a normal situation the signing of the contract would void any prior agreement, and the individual loses their claim.
But does that still apply in this situation? Or does the individual have legal recourse?