I live in the UK, and work on weekends for probably the UK's biggest fashion retailer. I recently got an email from them asking me to consent to the terms of a new contract. In it, I noticed this section, which does not apply to me but I found interesting anyway:
- If you commenced employment with [our company] after (and were not, therefore, on our payroll on) 28 February 2020, please read this section:
As you started employment with [our company] after 28 February 2020, we cannot include you in the UK Government’s Job Retention Scheme. However, I am pleased to confirm that we will furlough you under the same terms.
You will move into a period of furlough backdated to 24 March 2020 and until 31 May 2020 unless notice is given in writing by [our company] as set out below.
I'm confused as to the distinction between the Job Retention Scheme and furloughing. Does this mean that the government will not be paying for these workers, so the company will be paying for them instead, or does it mean something else that I'm missing here?