The USA federal law for trespassing states:
A person commits an offense if, knowing that he or she is not licensed or privileged to do so, he or she enters or surreptitiously remains in any building or occupied structure.
I'm curious how explicit one's knowledge that they lack privilege to enter anther's property must be before they are guilty of trespassing.
I have to assume that there has been some precedent set that states that if a reasonable person has reason to believe they have 'privileged' to enter a building then I wouldn't be guilty trespassing, thus the reason I can enter a store or my local church without asking explicit permission first.
I'm curious about this precedent I assume must exists, and where the lines are drawn on it. Is there case law that defines when one is allowed to presume they have permission, in absence of being explicitly forbidden, to enter a building? And where do they draw the line on ones ability to presume they have such privilege?
Could I walk into any strangers house because they haven't explicitly told me they don't want me to, or does case law say a reasonable person should know they are not welcome in a strangers home? Could my kids go jumping on a neighbor's trampoline or swim in their pool because the neighbor never built a fence or told them they weren't welcome?
